netchaplain
Full Member
The Christian life is not our living a life like Christ, but Christ living His life in us!
Posts: 206
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Post by netchaplain on Dec 16, 2022 7:02:03 GMT -8
The Law of Moses being given to Israel manifested the love of God to them, and eventually to the world! He chose a “people,” which could have been any nation, to establish knowledge and faith in Himself. First, He must inform man of his guilt before Him, in order that that may choose to believe in Him, love Him and follow Him. Thus it was by the Law that He showed them their wrongs (Jhn 9:41; 15:22, 24); and it was by the sacrificial ordinances that He forgave those who believed in Him.
Thus, it was obedience to the Law that men chose to perform, in order to manifest their love to God; but it was through the sacrificial ordinances that forgiveness was established. Though there was still was some disobedience from the believers, God continued to forgive, for He knew man was a sinner and in need of redemption (which came latter).
The reason why the Law could only condemn was because it required the obedience of One who is without sin to obey it, so that the sacrifice would be flawless. No other sacrifice could God receive than that of a spotless and perfect nature. The Father could have sacrificed Himself, but that would not have been the greatest sacrifice!
“Until the redemption of the purchased possession” (Eph 1:14) could take place, the Father first chose to deal with the Jews (Rom 1:16; 2:9, 10), and after the rejection of the Lord Jesus by most of them (of course He knew would be the case) He proceeded to the Gentiles, which He also knew would be rejected by most (Mat 7:13, 14). Thus, the Law directed man to the Gospel of Christ (Gal 3:24, 25), and it being fulfilled by the Lord Jesus (Jhn 19:30), the Father made redemption possible.
NC
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Post by makesends on Dec 16, 2022 7:37:05 GMT -8
The Law of Moses being given to Israel manifested the love of God to them, and eventually to the world! He chose a “people,” which could have been any nation, to establish knowledge and faith in Himself. First, He must inform man of his guilt before Him, in order that that may choose to believe in Him, love Him and follow Him. Thus it was by the Law that He showed them their wrongs (Jhn 9:41; 15:22, 24); and it was by the sacrificial ordinances that He forgave those who believed in Him. Thus, it was obedience to the Law that men chose to perform, in order to manifest their love to God; but it was through the sacrificial ordinances that forgiveness was established. Though there was still was some disobedience from the believers, God continued to forgive, for He knew man was a sinner and in need of redemption (which came latter). The reason why the Law could only condemn was because it required the obedience of One who is without sin to obey it, so that the sacrifice would be flawless. No other sacrifice could God receive than that of a spotless and perfect nature. The Father could have sacrificed Himself, but that would not have been the greatest sacrifice! “Until the redemption of the purchased possession” (Eph 1:14) could take place, the Father first chose to deal with the Jews (Rom 1:16; 2:9, 10), and after the rejection of the Lord Jesus by most of them (of course He knew would be the case) He proceeded to the Gentiles, which He also knew would be rejected by most (Mat 7:13, 14). Thus, the Law directed man to the Gospel of Christ (Gal 3:24, 25), and it being fulfilled by the Lord Jesus (Jhn 19:30), the Father made redemption possible. NC Not to dispute that God can do anything he wishes to do, but is there no indication that he chose them specifically? Can it not be deduced that he made that particular nation for that particular purpose? Do you see any reason to believe that God does anything randomly, arbitrarily or capriciously? Do you think that he chose from among the pool of nations available to him, or rather, that he had chosen them from before even Adam was created? My questions do not suppose that Israel was a better nation than other nations, to be chosen by God, but that God had all things in mind from the beginning. |
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netchaplain
Full Member
The Christian life is not our living a life like Christ, but Christ living His life in us!
Posts: 206
|
Post by netchaplain on Dec 16, 2022 9:49:31 GMT -8
The Law of Moses being given to Israel manifested the love of God to them, and eventually to the world! He chose a “people,” which could have been any nation, to establish knowledge and faith in Himself. First, He must inform man of his guilt before Him, in order that that may choose to believe in Him, love Him and follow Him. Thus it was by the Law that He showed them their wrongs (Jhn 9:41; 15:22, 24); and it was by the sacrificial ordinances that He forgave those who believed in Him. Thus, it was obedience to the Law that men chose to perform, in order to manifest their love to God; but it was through the sacrificial ordinances that forgiveness was established. Though there was still was some disobedience from the believers, God continued to forgive, for He knew man was a sinner and in need of redemption (which came latter). The reason why the Law could only condemn was because it required the obedience of One who is without sin to obey it, so that the sacrifice would be flawless. No other sacrifice could God receive than that of a spotless and perfect nature. The Father could have sacrificed Himself, but that would not have been the greatest sacrifice! “Until the redemption of the purchased possession” (Eph 1:14) could take place, the Father first chose to deal with the Jews (Rom 1:16; 2:9, 10), and after the rejection of the Lord Jesus by most of them (of course He knew would be the case) He proceeded to the Gentiles, which He also knew would be rejected by most (Mat 7:13, 14). Thus, the Law directed man to the Gospel of Christ (Gal 3:24, 25), and it being fulfilled by the Lord Jesus (Jhn 19:30), the Father made redemption possible. NC Not to dispute that God can do anything he wishes to do, but is there no indication that he chose them specifically? Can it not be deduced that he made that particular nation for that particular purpose? Do you see any reason to believe that God does anything randomly, arbitrarily or capriciously? Do you think that he chose from among the pool of nations available to him, or rather, that he had chosen them from before even Adam was created? My questions do not suppose that Israel was a better nation than other nations, to be chosen by God, but that God had all things in mind from the beginning. God does everything "according to His good pleasure" (Eph 1:5, 9), |
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Post by civic on Dec 16, 2022 10:01:25 GMT -8
And we know that God takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked - Ez 33:11
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Post by makesends on Dec 16, 2022 10:35:24 GMT -8
And we know that God takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked - Ez 33:11 True that! But to say God "does as he pleases" is not the same reference to pleasure, as to say God "takes no pleasure" in the death of the wicked. When God does according to his 'good pleasure', it is not talking about enjoyment, but his decree according to his own council. When God 'takes no pleasure' in the death of the wicked, it is the fact that he does not enjoy when the wicked die, or, does not enjoy the fact that the wicked die, or even that he does not enjoy the anticipation of them dying. While you, no doubt, realize that this further moves the conversation in a direction the op had not intended, (and not that I didn't do the same with my post, lol), which direction I think he most clearly pointed at in his last paragraph, I expect you would be interested, and certainly I am interested, in comments on that, and maybe in how they might relate to our tangents here. For the sake of simplicity and clarity for responses, I will quote the OP's last paragraph here: “Until the redemption of the purchased possession” (Eph 1:14) could take place, the Father first chose to deal with the Jews (Rom 1:16; 2:9, 10), and after the rejection of the Lord Jesus by most of them (of course He knew would be the case) He proceeded to the Gentiles, which He also knew would be rejected by most (Mat 7:13, 14). Thus, the Law directed man to the Gospel of Christ (Gal 3:24, 25), and it being fulfilled by the Lord Jesus (Jhn 19:30), the Father made redemption possible. |
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