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Post by Deleted on Sept 4, 2022 6:05:09 GMT -8
Several things were left out. The most important condition relevant to soteriology is the fact Ezekiel's audience were already living in a covenant relationship with God. These aren't atheists living outside of a covenant relationship. Here in Ezekiel God is speaking to those He chose before they even knew they were being chosen, and they were chosen without being asked or invited. They weren't given an option - any choice - until long after they'd been brought into that covenant relationship that was initiated and sustained solely by God. None of them were asked to repent until AFTER that covenant relationship had been well established. Christological salvation is a covenant relationship. Regeneration precedes faith. These aren't atheists living outside of a covenant relationship.It doesn't matter whether it is an atheist or one who is simply disobedient! They are not believing, and thus, not behaving as believers. Again, to be in covenant you must be believing. Doug It does matter. I explained how and why it matters. None of it was addressed. The reason it matters is because the fallacy of false equivalence is to be avoided and this op commits that fallacy in at least two ways. It makes comparisons between regenerate believers and unregenerate non-believers, and it implicitly assumes unregenerate believers in God/Messian/sin are the same as unregenerate deniers of God/ Messiah/sin. Synergists do it a lot. You've just done it. Not all unbelief is identical. It's not okay to treat all categories identical. It's not scriptural and it's not logical. Nearly everyone in the Bible believed in some God. THEY WERE NOT NON-BELIEVERS IN GOD!!! Jews and most of the pagans also believed in a redeemer. Most of them believed in sin and most of them believed in the possibility of a better life on the other side of the grave (Hades versus Elysian Fields). What they didn't believe was the specific version of these things Jesus taught. In other words, Jesus was speaking to an already-primed and prepared audience who already possessed some belief. That belief was not sufficient for salvation. Intellectual assent is never enough (even though some synergists often say otherwise). The Bible says very little about the person who lacks all belief and when it does speak about them it does so in decidedly deterministic ways. They are fools whose destiny is decided. Romans 1....just as they did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer, God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do those things which are not proper, 29being filled with all unrighteousness, wickedness, greed, evil; full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, malice; they are gossips, 30slanderers, haters of God, insolent, arrogant, boastful, inventors of evil, disobedient to parents, 31without understanding, untrustworthy, unloving, unmerciful; 32and although they know the ordinance of God, that those who practice such things are worthy of death, they not only do the same, but also give hearty approval to those who practice them.God did not ask any of them if they wanted to be given over to a depraved mind. This undeniable and frequently occurring condition in which God acts without asking is not being addressed. I have provided plenty of scripture reporting this condition. This condition was ignored when Joshua 24 was asserted, and it is still being ignored. The fact the Bible has very little to say about atheists and when it does speak about them it is not synergistic is also being ignored. The fact false equivalences have been asserted and not corrected is also being ignored. If and when these facts of scripture are accepted the monergist pov will also be accepted because the fact of the OT covenants is the choices asked of covenant members came only after the covenant was established and none of them were established with atheists.
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Post by civic on Sept 4, 2022 6:39:30 GMT -8
The most important condition relevant to soteriology is the fact Ezekiel's audience were already living in a covenant relationship with God.The covenant is a national/corporate covenant not an individual covenant. Doug And the fact of whole scripture is this: Jesus would have come even if God saved only one person. That is an assumption/presupposition nowhere found in scripture.
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Post by Deleted on Sept 4, 2022 7:02:57 GMT -8
Several things were left out. The most important condition relevant to soteriology is the fact Ezekiel's audience were already living in a covenant relationship with God. These aren't atheists living outside of a covenant relationship. Here in Ezekiel God is speaking to those He chose before they even knew they were being chosen, and they were chosen without being asked or invited. They weren't given an option - any choice - until long after they'd been brought into that covenant relationship that was initiated and sustained solely by God. None of them were asked to repent until AFTER that covenant relationship had been well established. Christological salvation is a covenant relationship. Regeneration precedes faith. They weren't given an option - any choice - until long after they'd been brought into that covenant relationship that was initiated and sustained solely by God.
Again, those who do not believe are not ever given the blessings of the covenant! Those who were delivered from Egypt were part of the covenant, but only those who believed, Joshua and Caleb, made it to the promise land. Doug Irrelevant. My post was not about those "not ever given the blessings of the covenant." My post was specifically about those who did receive the OT benefits of the OT covenants. Furthermore, your statement is factually incorrect. Everyone in Israel benefitted from the covenant, even the disobedient, even the Israel that was not Israel. Furthermore, the Joshua 24 text that was used to support this op occurred long after they'd left the wilderness and entered the promised land. The people of God repented (changed direction) in Joshua 1. Twenty-four chapters later..... they were asked to choose. This wasn't the first occasion, but this is the one used to support this op. This should be obvious to you, Doug, because I specified Joshua 24, AND the text of Joshua 24 is clearly made to a multitude of people, not just Joshua and Caleb. So.... not only is the post wrong, it is also irrelevant to the earlier points (plural) being made. But, since the matter was broached, the fact of scripture is Joshua and Caleb were also members of a covenant relationship that was initiated by God before either of them were born and neither of them were asked about it. The only reason any of the Hebrews were brought out of Egypt was causally due to a prophecy spoken to Abraham when he was a covenant member. The only reason the prophecy was told to Abraham was because the enslavement of the Hebrews and their liberation and their entrance into the land promised the one man Abraham is because all if it was part of a plan and purpose that God had decided upon before He created a single atom of creation. He did not ask anyone when He formed His purpose for creation. From creation through Adam, then Noah, then Abraham - and even Moses - because Moses was commanded by God to be His agent long before Joshua or Caleb knew they were going to be liberated - there is a series of divine decisions and actions God made for the purpose of salvation that He makes without asking the creatures involved. Joshua and Caleb were obedient and faithful because of their faith in an already-existing covenant. And that covenant relationship was one they'd been brought into long before the entered the promised land. Hebrews 11 tells us all this episodes were directly related to Christological salvation and God's purpose. Hebrews 11 All these died in faith, without receiving the promises, but having seen them and having welcomed them from a distance, and having confessed that they were strangers and exiles on the earth. 14For those who say such things make it clear that they are seeking a country of their own. 15And indeed if they had been thinking of that country from which they went out, they would have had opportunity to return. 16But as it is, they desire a better country, that is, a heavenly one. Therefore, God is not ashamed to be called their God; for He has prepared a city for them. Speaking of Moses - and by extension Joshua and Caleb - the author wrote, Hebrews 11:29-30By faith they passed through the Red Sea as though they were passing through dry land; and the Egyptians, when they attempted it, were drowned. 30By faith the walls of Jericho fell down after they had been encircled for seven days.No person not already in the previously established covenant experienced any of the above. Especially not a single atheist. God did not choose atheists to be enslaved. God did not choose atheists to be liberated. God did not choose atheists to enter the promised land. God didn't give atheists a choice once they had already entered to covenant promised land. He chose people who already believed in God, a redeemer, and sin. He chose those people without asking them and He brought them into the covenant also without asking them. He did not ask any of them to do anything until after He had acted sovereignly based on His will and His purpose. Every Christian should acknowledge these facts. Half of Christendom may not because their taught synergism, not because scripture is silent on the matter or says something different. There's one more relevant aspect. Doug has noted only those who believed entered the promised land. Doug is correct but Doug has neglected to also include the fact their faith existed in an an already-established God-initiated covenant. The author of Hebrews (as well as Paul and Peter in their respective letters) tells us these men and women of faith were looking for a country that was heavenly, not earthly. They were looking for a city God prepared for them. Clearly not all Hebrews or Jews understood this. We see this clearly demonstrated in the gospels on almost every occasion where there is a confrontation between Jesus and the Jewish leaders. Sometimes with the common Jew. They clearly did not all understand what it was they hoped for, or what it was God had promised. Paul later tells us, " not all Israel are Israel," and not all the descendants of Abraham are his descendants. It is only those of the promise, not the flesh or works of the flesh that are the descendants of Abraham. The promise came first. Then faith followed. The promise that came first necessarily and inextricably came with a set of predetermined events that existed prior to and in conjunction with the individual's faith and faithfulness, not the other way around. Monergists and synergists can agree: God reveals Himself first, but that's a very small part of the equation. Salvifically speaking, God's revealing Himself always comes in the context of an already-existing covenant that He initiated and established prior to revealing Himself and prior to asking the creature anything. That goes for Joshua and Caleb just as much as it goes for everyone else in scripture, and it is no different with us. Christ is not the exception to the rule; he is the rule.
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Post by Deleted on Sept 4, 2022 7:06:59 GMT -8
And the fact of whole scripture is this: Jesus would have come even if God saved only one person. That is an assumption/presupposition nowhere found in scripture. It is not explicitly stated in scripture, but it is the logically necessary outcome of 1 Peter 1:20. Peter plainly states Jesus was foreknown as the perfect sacrifice. What good would the sacrifice be if none got saved? None. It would be a fruitless act and God acting fruitlessly is going to contradict a pile of scripture and undermine everything core to Christianity. So logic tells us at least one person was going to be saved. Scripture tells us many will be saved, but logic tells us God was going to save at least one if Jesus was foreknown as the one single solitary path to God through his life, death, and resurrection. It can be one, or it can be many, but it cannot be none.
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Post by Obadiah on Sept 4, 2022 7:40:07 GMT -8
If You Were the Only OneI think that message is to show people in doubt how much God loves them. It's clearly not what the Bible teaches and it's a definite strawman. If there was only one person left on the planet who would crucify Jesus? John 12:32 And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me. Mark 15:39 “And when the centurion, who stood there in front of Jesus, heard his cry and saw how he died, he said, ‘Surely this man was the Son of God!’ And the woman at the well. John 4:28-30 Then, leaving her water jar, the woman went back to the town and said to the people, 29 “Come, see a man who told me everything I ever did. Could this be the Messiah?” 30 They came out of the town and made their way toward him. John 3:16 For God so loved the world that He gave the only begotten Son, so that everyone believing in Him should not perish, but should have eternal life. Matthew 20:28 "Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many." And Jesus the Lord of the harvest said: Matthew 9:37-38 Then he said to his disciples, “The harvest is plentiful, but the laborers are few; 38 therefore pray earnestly to the Lord of the harvest to send out laborers into his harvest.” Jesus has a huge harvest, think grains of sand at the seashore
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Post by TibiasDad on Sept 4, 2022 16:40:16 GMT -8
And the fact of whole scripture is this: Jesus would have come even if God saved only one person. That is an assumption/presupposition nowhere found in scripture.
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Post by TibiasDad on Sept 4, 2022 19:14:15 GMT -8
These aren't atheists living outside of a covenant relationship.It doesn't matter whether it is an atheist or one who is simply disobedient! They are not believing, and thus, not behaving as believers. Again, to be in covenant you must be believing. Doug It does matter. I explained how and why it matters. None of it was addressed. The reason it matters is because the fallacy of false equivalence is to be avoided and this op commits that fallacy in at least two ways. It makes comparisons between regenerate believers and unregenerate non-believers, and it implicitly assumes unregenerate believers in God/Messian/sin are the same as unregenerate deniers of God/ Messiah/sin. Synergists do it a lot. You've just done it. Not all unbelief is identical. It's not okay to treat all categories identical. It's not scriptural and it's not logical. Nearly everyone in the Bible believed in some God. THEY WERE NOT NON-BELIEVERS IN GOD!!! Jews and most of the pagans also believed in a redeemer. Most of them believed in sin and most of them believed in the possibility of a better life on the other side of the grave (Hades versus Elysian Fields). What they didn't believe was the specific version of these things Jesus taught. In other words, Jesus was speaking to an already-primed and prepared audience who already possessed some belief. That belief was not sufficient for salvation. Intellectual assent is never enough (even though some synergists often say otherwise). The Bible says very little about the person who lacks all belief and when it does speak about them it does so in decidedly deterministic ways. They are fools whose destiny is decided. Romans 1....just as they did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer, God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do those things which are not proper, 29being filled with all unrighteousness, wickedness, greed, evil; full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, malice; they are gossips, 30slanderers, haters of God, insolent, arrogant, boastful, inventors of evil, disobedient to parents, 31without understanding, untrustworthy, unloving, unmerciful; 32and although they know the ordinance of God, that those who practice such things are worthy of death, they not only do the same, but also give hearty approval to those who practice them.God did not ask any of them if they wanted to be given over to a depraved mind. This undeniable and frequently occurring condition in which God acts without asking is not being addressed. I have provided plenty of scripture reporting this condition. This condition was ignored when Joshua 24 was asserted, and it is still being ignored. The fact the Bible has very little to say about atheists and when it does speak about them it is not synergistic is also being ignored. The fact false equivalences have been asserted and not corrected is also being ignored. If and when these facts of scripture are accepted the monergist pov will also be accepted because the fact of the OT covenants is the choices asked of covenant members came only after the covenant was established and none of them were established with atheists. Not all unbelief is identical. It's not okay to treat all categories identical. It's not scriptural and it's not logical. Is there an unbelief category in which the unbelief has belief in what it doesn't believe? All unbelief is identically void of belief; the object of belief may vary, but unbelief is unbelief. The Bible says very little about the person who lacks all belief and when it does speak about them it does so in decidedly deterministic ways. They are fools whose destiny is decided.
Romans 1 ....just as they did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer, God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do those things which are not proper, 29being filled with all unrighteousness, wickedness, greed, evil; full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, malice; they are gossips, 30slanderers, haters of God, insolent, arrogant, boastful, inventors of evil, disobedient to parents, 31without understanding, untrustworthy, unloving, unmerciful; 32and although they know the ordinance of God, that those who practice such things are worthy of death, they not only do the same, but also give hearty approval to those who practice them.
Why did act toward them in this way? It was because man willfully "did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer", because, "1:21...although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him", and they, "1:23...exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images made to look like a mortal human being and birds and animals and reptiles." And how does Paul describe the response of God? By using phrases like, "1:24Therefore God gave them over" and, "1:26Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts." The point is, according to the text, that God hadn't predetermined this, but responded to the self-determined choices of mankind to disregard the truths that they knew to be true! Peter says the same thing when he said, "But they deliberately forget that long ago by God’s word the heavens came into being and the earth was formed out of water and by water." (2 Peter 3:5) God, like when dealing with Cain in Genesis 4:6-7, works with man to overcome his sinfulness, but when we, like Cain, choose to disregard his gracious intervention, we are left to our own devices. He gives us over to the control of our own desires. As I think C.S. Lewis put it, in the end, it is either us saying thy will be done to God, or God say thy will be done to us. Man refuses to keep God's counsel, and God says, 'okay, if that's what you want, you got it!' This is what Paul depicts in Rom 1:21-ff! "Although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him...therefore, God gave them over to their sinful lusts"! Doug
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Post by Deleted on Sept 5, 2022 5:42:46 GMT -8
It does matter. I explained how and why it matters. None of it was addressed. The reason it matters is because the fallacy of false equivalence is to be avoided and this op commits that fallacy in at least two ways. It makes comparisons between regenerate believers and unregenerate non-believers, and it implicitly assumes unregenerate believers in God/Messian/sin are the same as unregenerate deniers of God/ Messiah/sin. Synergists do it a lot. You've just done it. Not all unbelief is identical. It's not okay to treat all categories identical. It's not scriptural and it's not logical. Nearly everyone in the Bible believed in some God. THEY WERE NOT NON-BELIEVERS IN GOD!!! Jews and most of the pagans also believed in a redeemer. Most of them believed in sin and most of them believed in the possibility of a better life on the other side of the grave (Hades versus Elysian Fields). What they didn't believe was the specific version of these things Jesus taught. In other words, Jesus was speaking to an already-primed and prepared audience who already possessed some belief. That belief was not sufficient for salvation. Intellectual assent is never enough (even though some synergists often say otherwise). The Bible says very little about the person who lacks all belief and when it does speak about them it does so in decidedly deterministic ways. They are fools whose destiny is decided. Romans 1....just as they did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer, God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do those things which are not proper, 29being filled with all unrighteousness, wickedness, greed, evil; full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, malice; they are gossips, 30slanderers, haters of God, insolent, arrogant, boastful, inventors of evil, disobedient to parents, 31without understanding, untrustworthy, unloving, unmerciful; 32and although they know the ordinance of God, that those who practice such things are worthy of death, they not only do the same, but also give hearty approval to those who practice them.God did not ask any of them if they wanted to be given over to a depraved mind. This undeniable and frequently occurring condition in which God acts without asking is not being addressed. I have provided plenty of scripture reporting this condition. This condition was ignored when Joshua 24 was asserted, and it is still being ignored. The fact the Bible has very little to say about atheists and when it does speak about them it is not synergistic is also being ignored. The fact false equivalences have been asserted and not corrected is also being ignored. If and when these facts of scripture are accepted the monergist pov will also be accepted because the fact of the OT covenants is the choices asked of covenant members came only after the covenant was established and none of them were established with atheists. Not all unbelief is identical. It's not okay to treat all categories identical. It's not scriptural and it's not logical. Is there an unbelief category in which the unbelief has belief in what it doesn't believe? All unbelief is identically void of belief; the object of belief may vary, but unbelief is unbelief. The Bible says very little about the person who lacks all belief and when it does speak about them it does so in decidedly deterministic ways. They are fools whose destiny is decided.
Romans 1 ....just as they did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer, God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do those things which are not proper, 29being filled with all unrighteousness, wickedness, greed, evil; full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, malice; they are gossips, 30slanderers, haters of God, insolent, arrogant, boastful, inventors of evil, disobedient to parents, 31without understanding, untrustworthy, unloving, unmerciful; 32and although they know the ordinance of God, that those who practice such things are worthy of death, they not only do the same, but also give hearty approval to those who practice them.
Why did act toward them in this way? It was because man willfully "did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer", because, "1:21...although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him", and they, "1:23...exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images made to look like a mortal human being and birds and animals and reptiles." And how does Paul describe the response of God? By using phrases like, "1:24Therefore God gave them over" and, "1:26Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts." The point is, according to the text, that God hadn't predetermined this, but responded to the self-determined choices of mankind to disregard the truths that they knew to be true! Peter says the same thing when he said, "But they deliberately forget that long ago by God’s word the heavens came into being and the earth was formed out of water and by water." (2 Peter 3:5) God, like when dealing with Cain in Genesis 4:6-7, works with man to overcome his sinfulness, but when we, like Cain, choose to disregard his gracious intervention, we are left to our own devices. He gives us over to the control of our own desires. As I think C.S. Lewis put it, in the end, it is either us saying thy will be done to God, or God say thy will be done to us. Man refuses to keep God's counsel, and God says, 'okay, if that's what you want, you got it!' This is what Paul depicts in Rom 1:21-ff! "Although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him...therefore, God gave them over to their sinful lusts"! Doug What is it you think we have to discuss when the actual content of my posts are not addressed?
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genez
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Post by genez on Sept 5, 2022 14:38:45 GMT -8
"Consequently, faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of Christ." Romans 10:17 Faith can not be had without the Word being heard, and the Word can not be experientially understood without it BECOMING our faith.
There is no time found in eternity. Eternal life does not have limits to time.
Faith does not precede regeneration. And, regeneration does not precede faith. Regeneration requires faith to become manifested. And faith requires regeneration to be comprehended.
Faith and regeneration are a simultaneously manifested from the perspective of eternity. Since God does the work in regeneration it does not require we understand how it works. To think in terms of timeless eternity can take quite some time before we can picture what I said. God simultaneously produces regeneration so that the faith we accepted at the same time will have fertile soil to grow in...
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Post by TibiasDad on Sept 5, 2022 17:17:50 GMT -8
Not all unbelief is identical. It's not okay to treat all categories identical. It's not scriptural and it's not logical. Is there an unbelief category in which the unbelief has belief in what it doesn't believe? All unbelief is identically void of belief; the object of belief may vary, but unbelief is unbelief. The Bible says very little about the person who lacks all belief and when it does speak about them it does so in decidedly deterministic ways. They are fools whose destiny is decided.
Romans 1 ....just as they did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer, God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do those things which are not proper, 29being filled with all unrighteousness, wickedness, greed, evil; full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, malice; they are gossips, 30slanderers, haters of God, insolent, arrogant, boastful, inventors of evil, disobedient to parents, 31without understanding, untrustworthy, unloving, unmerciful; 32and although they know the ordinance of God, that those who practice such things are worthy of death, they not only do the same, but also give hearty approval to those who practice them.
Why did act toward them in this way? It was because man willfully "did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer", because, "1:21...although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him", and they, "1:23...exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images made to look like a mortal human being and birds and animals and reptiles." And how does Paul describe the response of God? By using phrases like, "1:24Therefore God gave them over" and, "1:26Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts." The point is, according to the text, that God hadn't predetermined this, but responded to the self-determined choices of mankind to disregard the truths that they knew to be true! Peter says the same thing when he said, "But they deliberately forget that long ago by God’s word the heavens came into being and the earth was formed out of water and by water." (2 Peter 3:5) God, like when dealing with Cain in Genesis 4:6-7, works with man to overcome his sinfulness, but when we, like Cain, choose to disregard his gracious intervention, we are left to our own devices. He gives us over to the control of our own desires. As I think C.S. Lewis put it, in the end, it is either us saying thy will be done to God, or God say thy will be done to us. Man refuses to keep God's counsel, and God says, 'okay, if that's what you want, you got it!' This is what Paul depicts in Rom 1:21-ff! "Although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him...therefore, God gave them over to their sinful lusts"! Doug What is it you think we have to discuss when the actual content of my posts are not addressed? What have I said that is not directly in response to what you have said, Josheb? Were the bolded quotes not your words, thoughts, and assertions? Were these not part of "the actual content of your posts"? These quotes are the building blocks of your argument, and if they are incorrect, then the validity of the conclusion is suspect! Doug
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Post by Deleted on Sept 7, 2022 7:43:16 GMT -8
What is it you think we have to discuss when the actual content of my posts are not addressed? What have I said that is not directly in response to what you have said, Josheb? Were the bolded quotes not your words, thoughts, and assertions? Were these not part of "the actual content of your posts"? These quotes are the building blocks of your argument, and if they are incorrect, then the validity of the conclusion is suspect! Doug All of it. Just because a sentence is quoted and placed in bold face does not mean the point of the quote was addressed. I not only stated the points weren't addressed; I also reiterated the point, further elaborating for the sake of additional clarity. I did so in a good-faith effort to aid cogent discourse and prevent further irrelevancy. The response is now I'm being asked questions as if that didn't happen. I'm not collaborating with that nonsense. All anyone has to do who doesn't understand is to re-read what was posted. In other words, the rhetorical inquiries, " Were the bolded quotes not your words, thoughts, and assertions? Were these not part of "the actual content of your posts"?" are self-betraying. You've made it about my posts and not your own. At no time did I dispute my own words or that the quote mined sentence weren't my words. Another (gaslighitng) straw man was posted!. It's not about whether I was quoted or quoted accurately. It's about the response being germane. The previous posts quoted a (quote mined) line from a post and then added commentary irrelevant to the posted that was quote mined. You've just done it again!!! LOOK at this post. I asked a very specific question. It was not answered and the response was rhetorical and defensive. Go back and re-read my posts because they were either not correctly understood (explaining the irrelevant responses), or the non sequiturs and straw men are deliberate. I'm not collaborating with either.
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Deleted
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Post by Deleted on Sept 7, 2022 7:55:03 GMT -8
What is it you think we have to discuss when the actual content of my posts are not addressed? These quotes are the building blocks of your argument, and if they are incorrect, then the validity of the conclusion is suspect! Doug That is correct but non sequitur and straw men will never prove anything incorrect. Go back a re-read the posts and re-read them as many times as it takes for them to be correctly understood because the responses have nothing to do with the points being made. This is especially evident, for example, in regard to what I actually posted about the covenant relationships and the response. Your response had nothing to do with what I posted. Missed the point entirely. Yes, if a building block is incorrect then the validity of the conclusion is suspect, but if it is correct then the validity of the conclusion is not suspect and is perhaps one everyone should accept. The Joshua 24 text used by this op occurs in the context of a God-initiated covenant. It does not occur in the context of a God-denying individual outside of a covenant. If the op is going to use one sentence out of Joshua 24 to justify a soteriological position, then the entirety of the Joshua 24 passage in all its inherent (inherent, not attributed) contexts should be considered. Not just one sentence put in bold-faced type removed from all else. The fact of that verse is exactly as I stated. It is not incorrect. That "building block" I mentioned is 100% undeniably, irrefutably demonstrably correct. I explained, elaborated, and clarified it. And that fact was not addressed. It's one of several points being ignored in favor of non sequitur and straw men. I'll even make it incremental and simple for you. Did Joshua 24's choice inextricably occur within an already-established covenant relationship with God, or not?
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Post by TibiasDad on Sept 7, 2022 19:30:19 GMT -8
These quotes are the building blocks of your argument, and if they are incorrect, then the validity of the conclusion is suspect! Doug That is correct but non sequitur and straw men will never prove anything incorrect. Go back a re-read the posts and re-read them as many times as it takes for them to be correctly understood because the responses have nothing to do with the points being made. This is especially evident, for example, in regard to what I actually posted about the covenant relationships and the response. Your response had nothing to do with what I posted. Missed the point entirely. Yes, if a building block is incorrect then the validity of the conclusion is suspect, but if it is correct then the validity of the conclusion is not suspect and is perhaps one everyone should accept. The Joshua 24 text used by this op occurs in the context of a God-initiated covenant. It does not occur in the context of a God-denying individual outside of a covenant. If the op is going to use one sentence out of Joshua 24 to justify a soteriological position, then the entirety of the Joshua 24 passage in all its inherent (inherent, not attributed) contexts should be considered. Not just one sentence put in bold-faced type removed from all else. The fact of that verse is exactly as I stated. It is not incorrect. That "building block" I mentioned is 100% undeniably, irrefutably demonstrably correct. I explained, elaborated, and clarified it. And that fact was not addressed. It's one of several points being ignored in favor of non sequitur and straw men. I'll even make it incremental and simple for you. Did Joshua 24's choice inextricably occur within an already-established covenant relationship with God, or not? My point is not whether it is a covenant situation or not, it clearly is! My issue is that your interpretation of covenant is assumed to be correct, wherein I don't believe it is. Covenants are conditioned on both sides holding up their end of the covenant! If man X, then God Y. If man doesn't X, then God doesn't Y, but rather Z's!
Believing, demonstrated by obedience, is the conditional lynchpin in both the Old and New covenant settings. The Old is the prototype, employed on a test subject, ie Israel, who represents all mankind, and it, the prototype covenant, merely symbolizes what needs to be accomplished, but cannot actually effect it!
But the new Covenant is made with all mankind, and it does effect the desired result infallibility. That is how it is a new and better covenant! But both are founded on the grace through faith/belief model! Only one who demonstrably believes is actually in covenant. Thus, a Jewish person in Joshua's time is the subject of the covenant promises, but being in covenant is only possible through belief! Otherwise, it is not sola fida, and Abraham is not the father of all who believe as Abraham did!
Doug
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Post by civic on Sept 8, 2022 5:13:36 GMT -8
That is correct but non sequitur and straw men will never prove anything incorrect. Go back a re-read the posts and re-read them as many times as it takes for them to be correctly understood because the responses have nothing to do with the points being made. This is especially evident, for example, in regard to what I actually posted about the covenant relationships and the response. Your response had nothing to do with what I posted. Missed the point entirely. Yes, if a building block is incorrect then the validity of the conclusion is suspect, but if it is correct then the validity of the conclusion is not suspect and is perhaps one everyone should accept. The Joshua 24 text used by this op occurs in the context of a God-initiated covenant. It does not occur in the context of a God-denying individual outside of a covenant. If the op is going to use one sentence out of Joshua 24 to justify a soteriological position, then the entirety of the Joshua 24 passage in all its inherent (inherent, not attributed) contexts should be considered. Not just one sentence put in bold-faced type removed from all else. The fact of that verse is exactly as I stated. It is not incorrect. That "building block" I mentioned is 100% undeniably, irrefutably demonstrably correct. I explained, elaborated, and clarified it. And that fact was not addressed. It's one of several points being ignored in favor of non sequitur and straw men. I'll even make it incremental and simple for you. Did Joshua 24's choice inextricably occur within an already-established covenant relationship with God, or not? My point is not whether it is a covenant situation or not, it clearly is! My issue is that your interpretation of covenant is assumed to be correct, wherein I don't believe it is. Covenants are conditioned on both sides holding up their end of the covenant! If man X, then God Y. If man doesn't X, then God doesn't Y, but rather Z's!
Believing, demonstrated by obedience, is the conditional lynchpin in both the Old and New covenant settings. The Old is the prototype, employed on a test subject, ie Israel, who represents all mankind, and it, the prototype covenant, merely symbolizes what needs to be accomplished, but cannot actually effect it!
But the new Covenant is made with all mankind, and it does effect the desired result infallibility. That is how it is a new and better covenant! But both are founded on the grace through faith/belief model! Only one who demonstrably believes is actually in covenant. Thus, a Jewish person in Joshua's time is the subject of the covenant promises, but being in covenant is only possible through belief! Otherwise, it is not sola fida, and Abraham is not the father of all who believe as Abraham did!
DougI agree with this Doug. I'm not sure Josheb would disagree.
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Post by TibiasDad on Sept 9, 2022 9:05:22 GMT -8
My point is not whether it is a covenant situation or not, it clearly is! My issue is that your interpretation of covenant is assumed to be correct, wherein I don't believe it is. Covenants are conditioned on both sides holding up their end of the covenant! If man X, then God Y. If man doesn't X, then God doesn't Y, but rather Z's!
Believing, demonstrated by obedience, is the conditional lynchpin in both the Old and New covenant settings. The Old is the prototype, employed on a test subject, ie Israel, who represents all mankind, and it, the prototype covenant, merely symbolizes what needs to be accomplished, but cannot actually effect it!
But the new Covenant is made with all mankind, and it does effect the desired result infallibility. That is how it is a new and better covenant! But both are founded on the grace through faith/belief model! Only one who demonstrably believes is actually in covenant. Thus, a Jewish person in Joshua's time is the subject of the covenant promises, but being in covenant is only possible through belief! Otherwise, it is not sola fida, and Abraham is not the father of all who believe as Abraham did!
Doug I agree with this Doug. I'm not sure Josheb would disagree It would be a fatal error to his denial that an atheist under today's covenant is not included. Even in the Old Covenant a pagan/atheist could come into the covenant! So the covenant was always open to all people! Doug
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