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Post by Obadiah on Sept 27, 2022 4:29:02 GMT -8
Dispensationalism Definition
Dispensationalism is a theological system that maintains God works differently with different sets of people during the period of Biblical history.
The "father" of the Dispensationalism theory of understanding the Bible is a former Irish Anglican clergyman named John Nelson Darby (1800 - 1882). In 1830, he began to popularize the belief that that the Church would be raptured away to safety before the Great Tribulation and the return of Jesus Christ. In later years, he used this belief as a springboard to develop a wider Dispensationalism theology.
The theological concept of Dispensationalism got a boost in popularity through the popular Scofield Reference Bible of 1909. The annotated Bible, which focused on prophecy, was the work of a Congregational church pastor named C.I. Scofield (1843 - 1921). In it, Scofield divided God's dealings with mankind into seven distinct dispensations.
The first dispensation entails the time humans were in the Garden of Eden. The second one, called "conscience," centers around man being cast out of Garden due to sin (Genesis 3:23).
The third dispensation begins with God's covenant to Noah not to destroy the earth again through water (Genesis 8:20) and the subsequent start of human governments. The fourth begins when God tells Abram (later Abraham), at the age of 75, to journey to the land of Canaan where he will be made into a great nation (Genesis 12:1 - 3).
The fifth commences when the children of Israel, after leaving Egyptian bondage, agreed to obey God's laws (Exodus 19:8). The sixth dispensation starts with the crucifixion, death, and resurrection of Jesus Christ. The seventh and last 'age' of Dispensationalism constitutes the rule of Christ (Ephesians 1:10).
Unlike replacement theology, which supports the idea that the New Testament Church has completely replaced the physical nation of Israel as God’s chosen people, Dispensationalism states the Eternal is continuing to work with the Jews (despite their rejection of Jesus as the Messiah).
God's dealing with the Jews, according to dispensationalism, will continue up until the Second Coming or (in some versions) during the millennium when Christ rules the earth.
Although Dispensationalism does have some level of truth in it, it tends to go much too far in rejecting God's Old Testament law, which would include laws dealing with sexual morality and murder, in total blanket terms. A radical form of the system claims that all Old Testament law has been completely abolished.
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Post by praiseyeshua on Sept 27, 2022 4:30:22 GMT -8
Dispensation is a bad translation of οἰκονομία So the answer is literally.... YES. It is bad word. Someone took a mistake and fabricated a systematic theology from it. Would you mind explaining how your word should be understood. You called the word dispensation a mistake and didn`t explain why you think it is a mistake. Apologetics is missing. It is not just what I think. It is a fact. Dispensation isn't used in modern translations because it a Early Modern English word take from a blended of French and Latin. Much like "Concupiscence" it is a doctrine NOT a translation. www.etymonline.com/word/dispensationEtymology is a good subject to learn. A better choice of words is "administration". Which was available to early English translators but they choose not to use it. οἰκονομία is a reference to management and later governance. |
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Post by praiseyeshua on Sept 27, 2022 4:36:29 GMT -8
A radical form of the system claims that all Old Testament law has been completely abolished. I'm not a Dispensationalist and I believe Eph 2:15 by abolishing the law of commandments expressed in ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace, As I've said, the saints of God before the law was "ADDED".... served God. The Godly line of Seth. The faithful in Noah. The faithful in Abraham. |
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Post by Obadiah on Sept 27, 2022 4:37:56 GMT -8
οἰκονομία - time management Source: bible.knowing-jesus.com/strongs/G3622 the Greek word best corresponding to management is οἰκονομία, often translated as “stewardship” the term means generally “household management”. Recollect that the basic unit of the ancient world was the extended household, which in some cases would take quite extensive management. The term is used in Luke 16 referring to the “dishonest steward” who has his stewardship (οἰκονομία) removed from him. |
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Post by Deleted on Sept 27, 2022 6:43:33 GMT -8
Is dispensation a bad word? Yes this infamous word has been known to induce a panicky hysteria in some folks but what does it really mean? Well a dispensation denotes a period of time just as the word age does. The difference is that a dispensation denotes a period of time a system or organization of some kind is in force while an age is just a period of time in history. In scripture a dispensation is the period of time an arrangement God has made with man is in force. The period of time we live in now is part of what the Bible calls the dispensation of grace. This word is not the boogeyman some think it is. I'm inclined to disagree and suggest this op is part of the problem to be solved. The word "dispensation" can be found in the Bible. It's not a bad word. The English term " dispensation" is the KJV's translation for the word, " oikonomian," which more accurately means " administration," " stewardship," or " management," as in the management or stewardship of household affairs. It can be found used in several places in the New Testament, such as Ephesians 1:10 or 3:2, where Paul uses the term for soteriological and eschatological purpose. Jesus does the same in the parable of the unrighteous steward (Lk. 16). It's used about a half-dozen times and always in the singular. It's a fine word when used correctly. Hence the problem of modernity. In Dispensational Premillennialism (DP) the term is used in a very specific manner. Its veracity with scripture is arguable. Historically speaking, Christians going all the way back to the Bible have used the term, but until the 1800s when DPism arose the term was always used within the context of the covenants found in the Bible. The two were never mutually exclusive conditions. When the ECFs used the word " dispensation" that's how they treated it. This is important because the term "covenant" is not only found in the Bible, but the distinctions made on each occasion God asserts the covenant are explicitly stated. This is another HUGE difference in Dispensationalism and all other Christian theologies. The dispensations of DPism are never explicitly labeled in the Bible. Dispensationalists invented them. The number and names of the dispensations vary but the general consensus is there are seven, and they generally coincide with the covenant distinctions. This begs the question, " Why invent a term, define it independent of scripture, and apply it hermeneutically apart from the structure provided by scripture itself?" The dispensationalist uses the term to assert a period of time in biblical history when God dealt with humanity (or His people) in specified ways. Another big difference between the Church's historical use of the term " dispensation," and the Dispensational Premillennialist's use of the term is that the Church has always viewed the Bible and its structure a continuous, whereas DPism is a theology of written about this difference recently. discontinuity. A lot is being written about this distinction recently. Dispensationalism holds the dispensations are discontinuous and, although there may be some overlap, they are unrelated to one another. Lastly, for now  , the one place I find some meager veracity to the use of dispensation is the idea of " covenant of grace" versus " dispensation of grace." I can actually find the latter phrase explicitly stated in my Bible, but I can't find the former anywhere stated. The problem is the dispensation of grace is wholly consistent with the covenant in Christ so there's absolutely no warrant for separating them (or imagining it has a fixed beginning and end). So, the term itself is neither bad nor good, but it can be and has been abused. The resulting abuse has created significant problems both within the Church and externally regarding the Church's witness to the outside world. John Darby really messed things up. |
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Post by rickstudies on Sept 27, 2022 8:26:31 GMT -8
Would you mind explaining how your word should be understood. You called the word dispensation a mistake and didn`t explain why you think it is a mistake. Apologetics is missing. It is not just what I think. It is a fact. Dispensation isn't used in modern translations because it a Early Modern English word take from a blended of French and Latin. Much like "Concupiscence" it is a doctrine NOT a translation. www.etymonline.com/word/dispensationEtymology is a good subject to learn. A better choice of words is "administration". Which was available to early English translators but they choose not to use it. οἰκονομία is a reference to management and later governance. You make the argument using what you say is the root meaning of the word in French and Latin, then you throw in the meaning of other English words that come from the same root word. Seriously? That`s a terrible attempt to justify your claim that the English word dispensation is a mistake. A dispensation is the "dispense" of an "administration" for a limited amount of time. Perfectly in harmony with the context of the 4 verses in which the word appears. The word administration does not address periods of time so it is certainly not a good substitute word. Etymology is a good subject if you use it in a way that is logical. |
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Post by civic on Sept 27, 2022 11:35:41 GMT -8
Dispensation is a bad translation of οἰκονομία So the answer is literally.... YES. It is bad word. Someone took a mistake and fabricated a systematic theology from it. Would you mind explaining how your word should be understood. You called the word dispensation a mistake and didn`t explain why you think it is a mistake. Apologetics is missing. I'm sure when he checks back in on the forum he will answer your question.  |
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Post by rickstudies on Sept 27, 2022 13:09:13 GMT -8
Would you mind explaining how your word should be understood. You called the word dispensation a mistake and didn`t explain why you think it is a mistake. Apologetics is missing. I'm sure when he checks back in on the forum he will answer your question. We need to offer some educational material explaing how apologetics works. Although, if someone wants to disregard the help given by understanding the ages described in the Bible it doesn`t change anything so far as the gospel is concerned. It`s just an educational aid and that is the manner in which Paul used the words in the 4 verses that use the term dispensation. |
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Post by praiseyeshua on Sept 28, 2022 5:43:45 GMT -8
It is not just what I think. It is a fact. Dispensation isn't used in modern translations because it a Early Modern English word take from a blended of French and Latin. Much like "Concupiscence" it is a doctrine NOT a translation. www.etymonline.com/word/dispensationEtymology is a good subject to learn. A better choice of words is "administration". Which was available to early English translators but they choose not to use it. οἰκονομία is a reference to management and later governance. You make the argument using what you say is the root meaning of the word in French and Latin, then you throw in the meaning of other English words that come from the same root word. Seriously? That`s a terrible attempt to justify your claim that the English word dispensation is a mistake. A dispensation is the "dispense" of an "administration" for a limited amount of time. Perfectly in harmony with the context of the 4 verses in which the word appears. The word administration does not address periods of time so it is certainly not a good substitute word. Etymology is a good subject if you use it in a way that is logical. No. It is administration itself. Not a "dispensing of times". Even synonyms are not IDENTICAL. They have SIMILAR meaning not IDENTICAL meanings. You are the one reading in.... PERIODs of time. The Greek source is actually TIME. Point in time. Not periods of Time. FYI... "Administration" is not a blended word. It come directly from Latin without any other influence. It has come to mean exactly what the Greek construct expresses. God's governance in humanity. |
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Post by praiseyeshua on Sept 28, 2022 6:10:18 GMT -8
I'm sure when he checks back in on the forum he will answer your question. We need to offer some educational material explaing how apologetics works. Although, if someone wants to disregard the help given by understanding the ages described in the Bible it doesn`t change anything so far as the gospel is concerned. It`s just an educational aid and that is the manner in which Paul used the words in the 4 verses that use the term dispensation. Apologetic is a "defense of the faith". I'm a Christian. I made a systematic argument that you didn't understand. The issue isn't mine. |
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Post by rickstudies on Sept 28, 2022 6:39:02 GMT -8
You make the argument using what you say is the root meaning of the word in French and Latin, then you throw in the meaning of other English words that come from the same root word. Seriously? That`s a terrible attempt to justify your claim that the English word dispensation is a mistake. A dispensation is the "dispense" of an "administration" for a limited amount of time. Perfectly in harmony with the context of the 4 verses in which the word appears. The word administration does not address periods of time so it is certainly not a good substitute word. Etymology is a good subject if you use it in a way that is logical. No. It is administration itself. Not a "dispensing of times". Even synonyms are not IDENTICAL. They have SIMILAR meaning not IDENTICAL meanings. You are the one reading in.... PERIODs of time. The Greek source is actually TIME. Point in time. Not periods of Time. FYI... "Administration" is not a blended word. It come directly from Latin without any other influence. It has come to mean exactly what the Greek construct expresses. God's governance in humanity. I`m readin' the Bible and acceptin' the words the King James scholars used. Dispensations have a time element. Apologetics is a term that means defense of religeous doctrines and the scripture is our source matereal for that 2 Tim 3:16, Gal 1:7. The period of time we live in now is called the "times of the Gentiles" in scripture and trust me, the Gentiles still dominate the world. It`s a Biblical fact that is not dependent on the 4 dispensation verses. Luke 21, Romans 11, Daniel 8, Rev 19. www.gotquestions.org/times-of-the-Gentiles.htmlIf you are not willing to accept the authority of the scriptures then there isn`t much for a Berean Apologetist to say to you. |
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Post by rickstudies on Sept 28, 2022 6:42:40 GMT -8
We need to offer some educational material explaing how apologetics works. Although, if someone wants to disregard the help given by understanding the ages described in the Bible it doesn`t change anything so far as the gospel is concerned. It`s just an educational aid and that is the manner in which Paul used the words in the 4 verses that use the term dispensation. Apologetic is a "defense of the faith". I'm a Christian. I made a systematic argument that you didn't understand. The issue isn't mine. The ad hominem doesn`t make a good replacement for your argument that oh, the word dispensation is just a mistake but it is just as weak. |
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Post by praiseyeshua on Sept 28, 2022 7:05:48 GMT -8
No. It is administration itself. Not a "dispensing of times". Even synonyms are not IDENTICAL. They have SIMILAR meaning not IDENTICAL meanings. You are the one reading in.... PERIODs of time. The Greek source is actually TIME. Point in time. Not periods of Time. FYI... "Administration" is not a blended word. It come directly from Latin without any other influence. It has come to mean exactly what the Greek construct expresses. God's governance in humanity. I`m readin' the Bible and acceptin' the words the King James scholars used. Dispensations have a time element. Apologetics is a term that means defense of religeous doctrines and the scripture is our source matereal for that 2 Tim 3:16, Gal 1:7. The period of time we live in now is called the "times of the Gentiles" in scripture and trust me, the Gentiles still dominate the world. It`s a Biblical fact that is not dependent on the 4 dispensation verses. Luke 21, Romans 11, Daniel 8, Rev 19. www.gotquestions.org/times-of-the-Gentiles.htmlIf you are not willing to accept the authority of the scriptures then there isn`t much for a Berean Apologetist to say to you. 2 Timothy 3:16 and Gal 1:7 do not have the word "dispensation" in them. Your appeal to them in this conversation is a distraction. FYI. I've been studying the Scriptures since was a young boy. I was born again when I was a teenager. I've spent significant time dealing these issues in my life. When I referenced "time", I was doing so in the context of my statement referencing οἰκονομία. I am more than willing to accept the authority of the Scriptures. Just not King James' authority. I can reference the source language of the Scriptures. I do not deny the "times of the Gentiles". However, that does not establish your position. Please explain how it does? |
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Post by praiseyeshua on Sept 28, 2022 7:09:24 GMT -8
Apologetic is a "defense of the faith". I'm a Christian. I made a systematic argument that you didn't understand. The issue isn't mine. The ad hominem doesn`t make a good replacement for your argument that oh, the word dispensation is just a mistake but it is just as weak. I reject your classication of my argument as being a "ad hominem". I directed my argument at a word. |
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Post by rickstudies on Sept 28, 2022 7:24:53 GMT -8
The ad hominem doesn`t make a good replacement for your argument that oh, the word dispensation is just a mistake but it is just as weak. I reject your classication of my argument as being a "ad hominem". I directed my argument at a word. You directed the ad hominem at me when you falsely claim I didn`t understand your contention. |
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, the one place I find some meager veracity to the use of dispensation is the idea of "covenant of grace" versus "dispensation of grace." I can actually find the latter phrase explicitly stated in my Bible, but I can't find the former anywhere stated. The problem is the dispensation of grace is wholly consistent with the covenant in Christ so there's absolutely no warrant for separating them (or imagining it has a fixed beginning and end). 
