TedT
Junior Member
...gruntled.
Posts: 57
|
Post by TedT on Oct 31, 2022 15:40:19 GMT -8
Able to fulfill HIS offer of marriage means that HE would never create anyone unable to fulfill HIS marriage proposal as HE cannot, as in, would never, marry any sinner.
Isaiah 43:7, 21 7 "whom I created for my glory" 21 the people I formed for myself that they may proclaim my praise.
Created as sinful in Adam's sin means unable to fulfill HIS purpose as they are created contrary to these verses in Isaiah but must be redeemed and sanctified before marriage can be offered or accepted...not HIS likely first choice so, iow, the doctrine of our being sinful in Adam rather then by a pre-conception choice to rebel against HIM, needs some work.
|
|
|
Post by makesends on Oct 31, 2022 18:02:07 GMT -8
I have come to realize that the fact that the full story of GOD's interaction with man on this earth ends with a heavenly marriage implies that the heavenly marriage was HIS purpose for our creation. It is in the heavenly marriage that HIS GLORY shines forth the strongest and most perfect in relationship with us, NOT in justice nor redemption which are merely aids to bring the marriage to fruition after to our moral stumbles. HIS plan for all creation was the heavenly marriage. HIS plan for each of us was the heavenly marriage. Everything HE has ever done or will ever do conformed to this purpose, this plan, and He has never done anything that would slow this plan down or put it off or side track it in the least! It implies that ALL of HIS being, all of HIS Sovereignty, all of HIS love, HIS righteousness and HIS nature as just have one perfect focus, to culminate HIS relationship with HIS creation in the heavenly marriage: one plan, one focus. Therefore: Our free will is an absolute necessity.Aside from the fact that GOD cannot create any evil so all sinfulness proves the free will of the sinner, it is also a fact that true love and true marriage can be arrived at only by the free will acceptance of the lover and acceptance of the proposal of marriage by the Bride. GOD is not a Borg willing to have a Stepford wife... This implies that GOD would always save anyone who could be saved from their sin to become HIS Bride. No one is in hell if they can be saved by any IF in reality... This also implies that only those who chose to eternally reject HIM as GOD and husband by a deep desire not to be involved in HIS plan would ever be passed over for entry into the marriage because they have a right to their free will decisions to choose such a path. It implies that everyone ever created in HIS image, ie, able to be a proper Bride for HIM, was created perfectly capable and able to become HIS bride, not held back by any imperfection or lack of acceptance by HIM. Isaiah 43:7, 21 7 "whom I created for my glory" 21 the people I formed for myself that they may proclaim my praise. Ecc 7:29 Only this have I found: I have discovered that God made man upright, but they have sought out many schemes.” Upright: S3477, yashar, straightforward, just, upright:... GOD created no one disgustingly corrupt, enslaved to sin and unable to be HIS Bride. By their coming into being everyone must have been within HIS plan, not separated from HIM by anything until they decide by their informed free will to reject HIM and HIS plan. HE cannot marry an evil person so why would HE create by any means, any system at all, evil people? It is impossible. You were doing so well! Right up to the "therefore"...
|
|
Deleted
Deleted Member
Posts: 0
|
Post by Deleted on Nov 2, 2022 11:54:40 GMT -8
I have come to realize that the fact that the full story of GOD's interaction with man on this earth ends with a heavenly marriage implies that the heavenly marriage was HIS purpose for our creation. It is in the heavenly marriage that HIS GLORY shines forth the strongest and most perfect in relationship with us, NOT in justice nor redemption which are merely aids to bring the marriage to fruition after to our moral stumbles. HIS plan for all creation was the heavenly marriage. HIS plan for each of us was the heavenly marriage. Everything HE has ever done or will ever do conformed to this purpose, this plan, and He has never done anything that would slow this plan down or put it off or side track it in the least! It implies that ALL of HIS being, all of HIS Sovereignty, all of HIS love, HIS righteousness and HIS nature as just have one perfect focus, to culminate HIS relationship with HIS creation in the heavenly marriage: one plan, one focus. Therefore: Our free will is an absolute necessity.Aside from the fact that GOD cannot create any evil so all sinfulness proves the free will of the sinner, it is also a fact that true love and true marriage can be arrived at only by the free will acceptance of the lover and acceptance of the proposal of marriage by the Bride. GOD is not a Borg willing to have a Stepford wife... This implies that GOD would always save anyone who could be saved from their sin to become HIS Bride. No one is in hell if they can be saved by any IF in reality... This also implies that only those who chose to eternally reject HIM as GOD and husband by a deep desire not to be involved in HIS plan would ever be passed over for entry into the marriage because they have a right to their free will decisions to choose such a path. It implies that everyone ever created in HIS image, ie, able to be a proper Bride for HIM, was created perfectly capable and able to become HIS bride, not held back by any imperfection or lack of acceptance by HIM. Isaiah 43:7, 21 7 "whom I created for my glory" 21 the people I formed for myself that they may proclaim my praise. Ecc 7:29 Only this have I found: I have discovered that God made man upright, but they have sought out many schemes.” Upright: S3477, yashar, straightforward, just, upright:... GOD created no one disgustingly corrupt, enslaved to sin and unable to be HIS Bride. By their coming into being everyone must have been within HIS plan, not separated from HIM by anything until they decide by their informed free will to reject HIM and HIS plan. HE cannot marry an evil person so why would HE create by any means, any system at all, evil people? It is impossible. I'm confused. The op is titled, "No inherited sin," but I don't read anything in the opening post about inherited sin. Neither do I find any of the verses cited saying anything about the matter. They are read to say things they do not actually state, and I wonder why anyone would abuse God's word that way. While i wholeheartedly agree with the premise God intended from the beginning to make a bride and that is His purpose in creating creation, I do not find that is complete. Not only could God have many purposes for creation, our being Hs bride is not all that God is making of us. As to the matter of inherited sin, some clarification is probably warranted because the original doctrine of "original sin," now has a basis in modern knowledge that was unknown to the ECFs when that doctrine was first formed. For example, they knew very little about genetics bac then and we now know everything a human observes hears and experiences gets recorded in the cells of the bran and through the process of cellular mitosis a record of all our experiences eventually gets reproduced into every cell of the body. What this means is that the record of his disobedience and all the consequences Adam experienced got recorded in every cell of his body. including his gonads. Eve's gonads, too. That cellular record then got transferred to their progeny. There is, therefore, a very real, tangible and undeniable bass for inherited sin. Then there's the matter of God not making people corrupt. God did not make Adam and Eve corrupt. They made themselves corrupt and reason inescapably tells us two imperfect creatures cannot make perfect progeny. The appeal to God's making ignores human making. Regardless of whether or not God makes people corrupt all have sinned and fall short of Hs glory. All are corrupt. And, lastly, free will is not a necessity and no case for that position was posted. God can make brides of creatures with any degree of volitional agency.
|
|
TedT
Junior Member
...gruntled.
Posts: 57
|
Post by TedT on Nov 3, 2022 9:46:30 GMT -8
I'm confused. The op is titled, "No inherited sin," but I don't read anything in the opening post about inherited sin. That you are blind to my thesis by a prior commitment is par for the course but I did present it...you just don't recognize it. Your read it here...I'll quote myself with the additions you need in blue... HIS plan for all creation was the heavenly marriage. HIS plan for each of us was the heavenly marriage. Everything HE has ever done or will ever do conformed to this purpose, this plan, and He has never done anything that would slow this plan down or put it off or side track it in the least! Inherited sin says HE blew HIS own plan out of the water by HIS own choice!It implies that ALL of HIS being, all of HIS Sovereignty, all of HIS love, HIS righteousness and HIS nature as just have one perfect focus, to culminate HIS relationship with HIS creation in the heavenly marriage: one plan, one focus. There is no room for HIM to create people wiht inherited sin and wreck HIS plan!
... It implies that everyone ever created in HIS image, ie, able to be a proper Bride for HIM, was created perfectly capable and able to become HIS bride, not held back by any imperfection or lack of acceptance by HIM. Isaiah 43:7, 21 7 "whom I created for my glory" 21 the people I formed for myself that they may proclaim my praise. Ecc 7:29 Only this have I found: I have discovered that God made man upright, but they have sought out many schemes.” Upright: S3477, yashar, straightforward, just, upright:... GOD created no one disgustingly corrupt, enslaved to sin and unable to be HIS Bride. The concept of inherited sin denies we are created able to fulfill Isaiah 43:7&21 by our creation. If we were made upright we were not made as sinners, in Adam's sin.
By their coming into being everyone must have been within HIS plan, not separated from HIM by anything until they decide by their informed free will to reject HIM and HIS plan. HE cannot marry an evil person so why would HE create including evil people by any means, any system at all, including inherited sin? It is impossible. Therefore, NO inherited sin!
|
|
Deleted
Deleted Member
Posts: 0
|
Post by Deleted on Nov 3, 2022 10:19:16 GMT -8
I'm confused. The op is titled, "No inherited sin," but I don't read anything in the opening post about inherited sin. That you are blind... Accusing posters of blindness is rude, disrespectful, a violation of the forum's rules of conduct, and completely off-topic. The facts in evidence remain: 1) Because Adam and Eve were physiologically affected by their disobedience and the ensuing consequences there is plenty of evidence, and therefore reason, for understanding sin is inherited and 2) eisegetic readings of scripture, false-cause reasoning, and the derisive response do not change anything.
|
|
Deleted
Deleted Member
Posts: 0
|
Post by Deleted on Nov 3, 2022 10:40:21 GMT -8
Able to fulfill HIS offer of marriage means that HE would never create anyone unable to fulfill HIS marriage proposal as HE cannot, as in, would never, marry any sinner. Isaiah 43:7, 21 7 "whom I created for my glory" 21 the people I formed for myself that they may proclaim my praise.Created as sinful in Adam's sin means unable to fulfill HIS purpose as they are created contrary to these verses in Isaiah but must be redeemed and sanctified before marriage can be offered or accepted...not HIS likely first choice so, iow, the doctrine of our being sinful in Adam rather then by a pre-conception choice to rebel against HIM, needs some work. It should not be assumed being created for His glory means sinless. Neither does being formed for Himself. This is especially true since Isaiah 43 is a prophecy specifically couched.... for the redeemed, not just anyone and everyone. It says so in the very first verse of the chapter. Isaiah 43:1-2 But now, thus says the LORD, your Creator, O Jacob, And He who formed you, O Israel, "Do not fear, for I have redeemed you; I have called you by name; you are Mine! "When you pass through the waters, I will be with you; And through the rivers, they will not overflow you. When you walk through the fire, you will not be scorched, Nor will the flame burn you.The verses you cited (verses 7 and 21) apply to the redeemed of Israel, not everyone. And we know from Paul not all who are descended from Israel are Israel (Rom. 9:6), and it is most definitely not children of the flesh who are God's children. Godis glorified no matter what happens, what he does, or what people do. God is glorified as a just God when He metes out the just recompense for sin. That applies to Isaiah 43:7 and 43:21 just as much as God's being glorified as the God of grace when He condescends to save a sinfully dead and enslaved sinner. The assumption those who He created for His glory means they are inherently sinless is an assumption, not something attributable to well-rendered scripture or sound reason. All people are created for His glory AND all are conceived in iniquity (Ps. 51:5), AND no one is righteous (Rom. 3:10), AND death has come to all people (Rom. 5:12), AND all live in a state of condemnation for not having believed in the name of Christ (Jn. 3:18) AND if we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us (1 Jn. 1:8). No one is born believing in Jesus. That is all it takes. Sin is inherited. Romans 14:23 ... whatsoever is not of faith is sin. That lack of faith is all it takes to be sinful. The op is incorrect.
|
|
Deleted
Deleted Member
Posts: 0
|
Post by Deleted on Nov 3, 2022 11:31:53 GMT -8
Christians definitely will not be judged for sin as Jesus has already dealt with sin on the cross. Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law: “Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us” (Galatians 3:13-14). Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law: “Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us” (Galatians 3:13-14). Christ redeemed us from the guilt of our sin. We are “justified as a gift by his grace, through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus” (Romans 3:24). Christ redeemed us from the power of sin: “knowing that you were not redeemed with perishable things like silver or gold from your futile way of life inherited from your fathers, but with precious blood, as of a lamb unblemished and spotless, the blood of Christ” (1 Peter 1:18-19). Sin is transgression of the law .... an embryo and/or baby and/or young child does not know what sin is for a period of time .... therefore they can not be held accountable until they know what it is. That is not all that is sin. Sin is not measured ONLY by the law. 1 John 3:4 is not the only verse in the Bible that defines sin. Sin is many things. The word "sin" literally means the missing of the target and the law is not the only target. Perfection, righteousness, and holiness are also targets by which sin is measured. Any unrighteousness is sin (1 Jn. 5:17). Anything not done in faith is also sin (Rom. 14:23). Sin reigned long before the Law was given. Christ did not just redeem us from the curse of the law. He redeemed from all forms of sin and sinfulness. Whether an embryo or a child knows good or evil, sin, sinlessness, or sinfulness is irrelevant. Knowledge is irrelevant. One of the sins from which Jesus redeemed us is the unknown sin! Praise God! It is common, maybe even popular, for some among us to believe a person is not held accountable until they know what is and isn't sin, and that was a part of Jewish theology, but there is no such scripture. Scripture says ALL have sinned and fall short of God glory. It does not say, "All but little children...." The word "all" means all. Death has come to ALL.
|
|
eleos
New Member
God is Love.
Posts: 44
|
Post by eleos on Nov 4, 2022 6:56:36 GMT -8
Sin is transgression of the law .... an embryo and/or baby and/or young child does not know what sin is for a period of time .... therefore they can not be held accountable until they know what it is. That is not all that is sin. Sin is not measured ONLY by the law. 1 John 3:4 is not the only verse in the Bible that defines sin. Sin is many things. The word "sin" literally means the missing of the target and the law is not the only target. Perfection, righteousness, and holiness are also targets by which sin is measured. Any unrighteousness is sin (1 Jn. 5:17). Anything not done in faith is also sin (Rom. 14:23). Sin reigned long before the Law was given. Christ did not just redeem us from the curse of the law. He redeemed from all forms of sin and sinfulness. Whether an embryo or a child knows good or evil, sin, sinlessness, or sinfulness is irrelevant. Knowledge is irrelevant. One of the sins from which Jesus redeemed us is the unknown sin! Praise God! It is common, maybe even popular, for some among us to believe a person is not held accountable until they know what is and isn't sin, and that was a part of Jewish theology, but there is no such scripture. Scripture says ALL have sinned and fall short of God glory. It does not say, "All but little children...." The word "all" means all. Death has come to ALL. *** The law depicts the perfect nature of God .... His character ... of which is unchangeable. There is nothing wrong with the law (God's character) ... there is something wrong with us .... It it His imputed/imparted righteousness that He gives as a gift to those in Him and who follow Him. The law is not a curse ...the curse is death that is from sin ... sin is transgression of the law. God not applying Christ’s death to those who cannot believe is inconsistent with His love and mercy ... His character. God does not create sinners. God does not create human beings as sinners from birth. We have a fallen nature .... but we are not responsible for that fallen nature that was passed on through Adam & Eve. David, the man after God’s own heart, wrote in Psalm 51:5, “Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me.” The apostle Paul wrote that we all gratify “the cravings of our sinful nature” (Ephesians 2:3). That means there is something naturally inside us that pushes us toward sin. Romans 9:11 22And this righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no distinction, 23for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, This is in the context of righteousness through faith. Fetuses, babies and small children don't have a clue about these and many other things. All are held accountable for what they know .... not what they do not know. Only God knows the heart. All are subject to the first death (earthly death - a few exceptions) but not all will be subject to the 2nd death .... because of Christ. Knowledge is irrelevant you say? Then why should any of us bother with studying His Word?
|
|
Deleted
Deleted Member
Posts: 0
|
Post by Deleted on Nov 4, 2022 9:02:12 GMT -8
That is true but it is irrelevant to what I said. What I said is plain and simple, and I evidenced it with scripture plainly stated and plainly read: Scripture defines sin in several places and in several ways.... not just one way. So in reply to the response, " The law depicts the perfect nature of God...." I say, " Amen!" but I also say, " So what? That ignores the more important parts of this conversation, namely the fact that scripture does not limit the definition of sin to the law." When a Christian limits the understanding of sin to the law they do themselves a disservice because the rest of scripture is being neglected. Scripture defines sin in several places, not one place. Scripture defines sin in different ways, not one way. The law depicts the perfect nature of God but so does all of scripture! ALL scripture depicts the perfect nature of God. The law depicts the perfect nature of God but the law that depicts the perfect nature of God is not the only way the perfect God defined sin. And those facts are being ignored in this thread. Any correct understanding of inherited sin is going to be dependent upon a whole and correct understanding of sin, not a partial understanding of sin garnered from one verse in the Bible at the expense of all others. The whole of the perfect God's scripture is being neglected in favor of one verse and one point of view that does not represent the whole of all that God said. God defined sin in different ways in different places because He wanted to do so. He wants is to know and understand sin in ALL those ways, not just the one way stated in 1John 3:4. I provided the scriptural references so everyone could look them up and verify what I posted. And the response ignored all that scripture. Please do not do that again. Join with me in reading the whole of scripture, accepting ALL that God said in His perfect word as He defined sin for us. Do not limit your understanding to just one verse when God Himself did not do so. Yeah, I don't know whether that quote mine was done on purpose on purpose, but I don't care. If you're trolling the stop it. If you're not trolling, then stop ignoring the context of what I posted. Knowledge of sin is irrelevant. I did not say all knowledge is irrelevant and nothing I posted should even remotely be construed to imply such a thing. Knowledge of sin is irrelevant to the definition of sin. A person does not have to have a definition of sin to be sinful. One of the things Paul told us about the law is that the law makes us aware of, or knowledgeable of sin (Rom. 7:7). Our being sinful is not dependent upon our knowing what is sin. A sinner can be completely ignorant of his sin and still be sinful. Knowledge of sin is irrelevant to the condition of sinfulness. Paul also plainly stated sin reigned from the time of Adam until Moses (Rom. 5:14). In other words, sin reign the entire time prior to the giving of the law. The giving of the law did not make sin exist. Sin existed and it ruled long before the law was ever given. When that passage speaks of sin not being held in account that does not mean sinners living from Adam to Moses did not suffer the wages of sin. Long before anyone knew the law people were sinful. Knowledge of it is irrelevant. There are millions of people living today who deny the existence of sin. Their denial of sin does not stop sin from being sin. Their ignorance or lack of knowledge does not stop them from being sinfully sinful sinners. Their knowledge of sin is irrelevant. Their ignorance of sin is irrelevant. And when the context of what I posted is ignored it is disingenuous. It is also ironic because that was either done deliberately (knowledge of sin) or by mistake (ignorance of sin). Either way it is wrong. Knowing or not knowing does not change its sinfulness. So please do not quote mine my posts again. What I said was, " Whether an embryo or a child knows good or evil, sin, sinlessness, or sinfulness is irrelevant. Knowledge is irrelevant. One of the sins from which Jesus redeemed us is the unknown sin! Praise God!" and I stand by those statements. In the Old Testament God provided a sacrifice for sins that were committed unawares, or unknowingly. Leviticus 5:17 KJVAnd if a soul sin, and commit any of these things which are forbidden to be done by the commandments of the LORD; though he wist it not, yet is he guilty, and shall bear his iniquity. Leviticus 5:17 NASNow if a person sins and does any of the things which the LORD has commanded not to be done, though he was unaware, he is still guilty and shall bear his punishment.Leviticus 5:17 ESVIf anyone sins, doing any of the things that by the LORD’s commandments ought not to be done, though he did not know it, then realizes his guilt, he shall bear his iniquity.Leviticus 5:17 NIVIf anyone sins and does what is forbidden in any of the LORD’s commands, even though they do not know it, they are guilty and will be held responsible. Hebrews 9:6-7Now when these things have been so prepared, the priests are continually entering the outer tabernacle, performing the divine worship, 7but into the second, only the high priest enters once a year, not without taking blood which he offers for himself and for the sins of the people committed in ignorance.People sin without knowing they have sinned. Scripture is very plain about this. They sin in ignorance. People sin apart from the law that depicts the perfect nature of God and one of the reasons this happens is because the law is not the sole definition of sin. The law is one means of defining sin, not the sole means. Psalm 19:12Who can understand his errors? Cleanse thou me from secret faults.And God did exactly that in Christ. God provided a sacrifice in Christ that covered the secret faults, the errors that are not understood. A person's knowledge of their sin is irrelevant to their being sinful. People are sinful whether they know it or not. In that context, knowledge is irrelevant. In point of fact, one of the reason the scriptures direct us to fellowship is so that our knowledge of sin may be better known. Hebrews 10:23-2923Let’s hold firmly to the confession of our hope without wavering, for He who promised is faithful; 24and let’s consider how to encourage one another in love and good deeds, 25not abandoning our own meeting together, as is the habit of some people, but encouraging one another; and all the more as you see the day drawing near. 26For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, 27but a terrifying expectation of judgment and the fury of a fire which will consume the adversaries. 28Anyone who has ignored the Law of Moses is put to death without mercy on the testimony of two or three witnesses. 29How much more severe punishment do you think he will deserve who has trampled underfoot the Son of God, and has regarded as unclean the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified, and has insulted the Spirit of grace? In other words, fellowship, not just the written law, is a means for knowing when, where, and how we have sinned. This is what we're doing right here, right now, in this forum in this thread. Someone has asserted 1 John 3:4 as THE definition of sin but according to the WHOLE word of God that depicts His perfect nature, neither 1 John 3:4 nor the law is the sole definition of sin. Scripture defines sin in a number of places in a number of different ways, some of which have nothing to do with the law. Sin existed before the law was give. Neither knowledge of sin, nor ignorance of sin, has much to do with one's sinfulness. It has a lot to do with handling one's sinfulness, but it does not change the condition of sinfulness. Here's one reason why this is important: Defining sin based solely on one verse in neglect of all else that scripture states defining sin is sinful! In other words, the thread itself has become an object lesson for understanding the problem of sin.... and its inheritance . The sin of proof-texting is committed either willfully, or in ignorance. Those are the only two options. If it's willful then nothing I or anyone else posts is likely to change that sinner's mind on the matter. He is sinning willfully . If, on the other hand, that sin was committed unwittingly, unintentionally..... then the knowledge of whole scripture can and should change everything. The person who, having received the whole counsel of God's word in all that it says defining sin, will accept that counsel, receive it in faith, apply it in thought, word, and deed in an observable manner and the error will not be repeated is different. Why? Because that person can no longer say they do not know! They now know a wholer and more diverse definition of sin AND dwell in untiy with the brethren AND have greater integrity and consensus with the whole of God's word. Proof-texting never accomplishes any of that. A person can sin and be sinful without knowing it. Knowledge of sin and sinfulness is irrelevant to being sinful. NOTHING in scripture says knowledge of sin has any bearing on one's sinful condition of sinfulness, and there are numerous places in God's word that state this explicitly and say it implicitly. - Sin is any imperfection.
- Sin is anything not done in faith.
- Sin is any unrighteousness.
- Sin is lawlessness.
. This wholer understanding is more empowering. The wholer understanding helps us understand the problem of sin, especially as it applies to whether or not sin is inherited.
|
|
Deleted
Deleted Member
Posts: 0
|
Post by Deleted on Nov 4, 2022 9:38:23 GMT -8
That is not all that is sin. Sin is not measured ONLY by the law. 1 John 3:4 is not the only verse in the Bible that defines sin. Sin is many things. The word "sin" literally means the missing of the target and the law is not the only target. Perfection, righteousness, and holiness are also targets by which sin is measured. Any unrighteousness is sin (1 Jn. 5:17). Anything not done in faith is also sin (Rom. 14:23). Sin reigned long before the Law was given. Christ did not just redeem us from the curse of the law. He redeemed from all forms of sin and sinfulness. Whether an embryo or a child knows good or evil, sin, sinlessness, or sinfulness is irrelevant. Knowledge is irrelevant. One of the sins from which Jesus redeemed us is the unknown sin! Praise God! It is common, maybe even popular, for some among us to believe a person is not held accountable until they know what is and isn't sin, and that was a part of Jewish theology, but there is no such scripture. Scripture says ALL have sinned and fall short of God glory. It does not say, "All but little children...." The word "all" means all. Death has come to ALL. *** So what? They are still sinful. The very verses you just quoted prove this because Paul couched verse 23 in the faith of verse 22 and no fetus, baby, or small child is born believing in God's one and only son. Righteousness comes through faith in Christ. Anyone not having such faith is unrighteous. ALL of them! That includes fetuses, babies, and small children. It is because they do not have a clue that they are unrighteous, faithless, and thereby sinful. John 3:18 KJV He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.John 3:18 ESV Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God.It does not have anything specifically to do with the law! It has everything to do with faith and believing. EVERYONE not believing is already condemned simply, solely, and specifically because they have not believed. It is our ignorance, or lack of belief, our lack of faith that makes us sinful. and condemned. Righteousness comes through faith in Jesus Christ.
|
|
Deleted
Deleted Member
Posts: 0
|
Post by Deleted on Nov 4, 2022 9:43:43 GMT -8
All are held accountable for what they don't know as well. Only God knows the heart. The [human] heart is many things, but above all else it is deceitful, and no one knows all the sins they have committed. No one fully understand the severity of their own sinfulness. This is why God made provision for unknown sins and sins done in ignorance. Things are being read into scripture it does not actually state, and things it does state are being neglected. People will be held accountable for every known sin AND they will be held accountable for every unknown sin. The two are not mutually exclusive.
|
|
Deleted
Deleted Member
Posts: 0
|
Post by Deleted on Nov 4, 2022 9:52:35 GMT -8
All are held accountable for what they know .... not what they do not know. Got scripture for that? I read the posts. I continually read the claim children are not accountable for unknown sins. I read scripture being eisegetically read in an attempt to make that case but every verse asserted so far actually states the exact opposite when whole scripture is considered AND there isn't a single verse quoted in the entire thread that specifically, explicitly states children aren't held accountable for what they do not know. Why is that? Why isn't an explicit statement in scripture being asserted? Because there is no such statement. Why is an inferential argument being asserted? Because the only argument that can be made given the absence of explicit statement is an inferential one. Nowhere does scripture itself make exception from children. Nowhere does scripture specifically exclude children from sinfulness. Nowhere does scripture exclude children sinners from the consequence of sin.
|
|
Deleted
Deleted Member
Posts: 0
|
Post by Deleted on Nov 4, 2022 9:59:20 GMT -8
The fact children are born ignorant of Christ and lacking faith in Christ is evidence of inherited sin. Christ, the tree of life, once dwelt in the garden and every human living in Eden had the privilege, benefit, and knowledge of that existence.
That changed at Genesis 3:6-24
Genesis 3:24 So He drove the man out; and at the east of the Garden of Eden He stationed the cherubim and the flaming sword which turned every direction to guard the way to the tree of life.
We inherited that. It was not the way God made us. It is a direct consequence of one man's disobedience by which death has come to all and all sin (apart from the law). Now none are born knowing the tree of life, none are born with any faith in the tree of life that once dwelt among humanity, none of us are born believing in the name of that tree, the one and only Son of God. As a consequence of these changes, none are righteous, and all stand already condemned.
There is not a person born who does not inherit these things.
|
|
TedT
Junior Member
...gruntled.
Posts: 57
|
Post by TedT on Nov 4, 2022 15:45:29 GMT -8
We inherited that. It was not the way God made us. So when were we made before we inherited Adam's sin by being born? By ordering out a system of our being created sinful by inheriting Adam's sin, your sentence is contrary to ordinary usage of the words... There is not a person born who does not inherit these things. There is no more proof that we inherit these things rather than we accrued them unto ourselves by our own indulgence in sin...except to suggest that the GOD who hates sin and who contends that only the sinner will die for his own sin, not his FATHER'S sin - READ: FEDERAL HEAD - Ezek 18:20 The soul who sins is the one who will die. A son will not bear the iniquity of his father... would never create HIS prospective bride as sinful and as foul as bloody rags, unable to fulfill HIS purpose of being HIS Bride!! No amount of fancy dancing or theo-babble can change this...
|
|
|
Post by civic on Nov 5, 2022 3:46:05 GMT -8
No one is guilty of sin until they sin
|
|